Bio+Bio+Tech+Final

BIOLOGY-BIOTECHNOLOGY FALL SEMESTER FINAL EXAM

1. Science differs from other disciplines, such as history and the arts, because science relies on C. observations.
 * B. testing explanations.**

2. The work of scientists usually begins with (**answer assumptions?**) B. careful observations.

3. Information gathered from observing a plant grow 3 cm over a two-week period is called D. data.

4. During a controlled experiment, a scientist isolates and tests. D. a single variable.

5. A theory A. is always true. B. is the opening statement of an experiment. C. may be revised or replaced. D. is a problem to be solved.

6. A well-tested explanation that explains a lot of observations is C. a theory.

7. How does society help science advance? A. Society’s biases steer scientists toward studying certain ideas. B. Society produces technology that can be used in science. C. Society’s morals help scientists make good decisions. D. Society raises questions that science can help answer.

8. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things? A. growth and development B. ability to move C. response to the environment D. ability to reproduce 9. Which of the following characteristics of living things best explains why some North American birds fly south for the winter? A. Living things respond to their environment. B. Living things maintain internal balance. C. Living things are made up of units called cells. D. Living things are based on a universal genetic code. 10. Cells in multicellular organisms have many different sizes and shapes. These differences in cells is called cell specialization. Cell specialization allows cells to A. reproduce. B. perform different functions. C. respond to their environment. D. be less complex. 11. The process by which organisms keep everything inside their bodies within certain limits is called A. homeostasis. B. evolution. C. metabolism. D. photosynthesis. 12. What are the smallest objects that biologists study? A. cells B. body organs C. molecules D. organisms 13. The basic unit of length in the metric system isthe A. gram. B. liter. C. yard. D. meter. 14. Using a universal system of measurement is MOST important during which part of scientific methodology? A. asking questions B. forming a hypothesis C. collecting data D. drawing conclusions 15. Scientists often try to repeat each other’s results. Which of the following should a scientist do to make it easier for others to replicate his or her experiment? A. Not use a control to save time. B. Collect only one set of data. C. Skip peer-review so the results are available sooner. D. Use the metric system when communicating procedures and results. 16. The three particles that make up atoms are A. protons, neutrons, and isotopes. B. neutrons, isotopes, and electrons. C. positives, negatives, and neutrals. D. protons, neutrons, and electrons. 17. Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons and a different number of A. electrons. B. molecules. C. neutrons. D. ions. 18. If an atom contains 11 protons and 12 neutrons, its atomic number is A. 1. B. 11. C. 12. D. 23. 19. Which of the following is a substance formed by the chemical joining of two or more elements in definite amounts? A. compound B. isotope C. nucleus D. enzyme 20. A covalent bond is formed as the result of A. transferring electrons. B. sharing electrons. C. transferring protons. D. sharing protons. 21. What type of electron is available to form bonds? A. valence B. nucleus C. ionic D. covalent 22. Water molecules are polar, with the A. oxygen side being slightly positive and the hydrogen side being slightly negative. B. oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly positive. C. oxygen and hydrogen sides being slightly negative. D. oxygen side being slightly negative and the hydrogen side being slightly positive. 23. A solution is a A. combination of isotopes. B. chemical reaction. C. mixture in which the substances are evenly spread out. D. mixture in which undissolved substances do not settle out. 24. If the pH of stomach acid and of oven cleaner were measured, A. both would be below 7. B. both would be above 7. C. the pH of stomach acid would be above 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be below 7. D. the pH of stomach acid would be below 7, but the pH of oven cleaner would be above 7. 25. Why is carbon so special compared to other elements? A. Carbon atoms can bond to one another and form a lot of different structures. B. Carbon atoms have four valence electrons and can form quadruple bonds. C. Only carbon atoms can form covalent bonds with oxygen and hydrogen. D. Only carbon atoms can be dissolved in water solutions and suspensions. 26. Amino acid is to protein as A. fat is to lipid. B. DNA is to RNA. C. sugar is to fat. D. simple sugar is to starch. 27. Which of the following is NOT a monomer? A. a glucose molecule B. an amino acid C. a nucleotide D. a protein 28. Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins? A. store and transmit genetic information B. help to fight disease C. control the rate of reactions D. move substances into or out of cells 29. Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true? A. Enzymes work best at a specified pH. B. All enzymes have the same shape as their substrates. C. Enzymes are proteins. D. The shape of an enzyme allows it to do its job. 30. Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the A. products of the reaction. B. speed of the reaction. C. temperature of the reaction. D. pH of the reaction. 31. Who used a compound microscope to see chambers within cork and named them “cells”? A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek B. Robert Hooke C. Matthias Schleiden D. Rudolf Virchow 32. Which of the following is NOT a principle of the cell theory? A. Cells are the basic units of life. B. All living things are made of cells. C. Very few cells are able to reproduce. D. All cells are produced from existing cells. 33. Electron microscopes can reveal details A. only in specimens that are still alive. B. about the different colors of cell structures. C. of cell structures only once they are stained. D. 1000 times smaller than those visible in light microscopes. 34. Which type of microscope can produce three-dimensional images of a cell’s surface? A. transmission electron microscope B. scanning electron microscope C. simple light microscope D. compound light microscope 35. Looking at a cell under a microscope, you note that it is a prokaryote. How do you know? A. The cell lacks cytoplasm. B. The cell lacks a cell membrane. C. The cell lacks a nucleus. D. The cell lacks genetic material. 36. Which of the following enclose their DNA in a nucleus? A. prokaryotes B. bacteria C. eukaryotes D. viruses 37. Prokaryotes usually have A. a nucleus. B. specialized organelles. C. genetic material. D. many cells. Figure 7–1 38. Which of the following conclusions could you draw about the cell shown in Figure 7–1? A. The cell is eukaryotic because it has a nucleus. B. The cell is prokaryotic because it has a nucleus. C. The cell is eukaryotic because it does not have a nucleus. D. The cell is prokaryotic because it does not have a nucleus. 39. Which of the following statements about the nucleus is NOT true? A. The nucleus stores the coded instructions for making the cell’s proteins. B. The nucleus usually contains a nucleolus region which is where ribosome assembly begins. C. The nucleus is the site of protein assembly. D. The nucleus is surrounded by a nuclear envelope that lets materials in and out. 40. Which organelle breaks down organelles that are no longer useful? A. Golgi apparatus B. lysosome C. endoplasmic reticulum D. mitochondrion 41. Which sequence correctly traces the path of a protein in the cell? A. ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus B. ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast C. endoplasmic reticulum, lysosome, Golgi apparatus D. ribosome, Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum 42. Which organelles are involved in energy conversion? A. mitochondria and chloroplasts B. mitochondria and ribosomes C. smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum D. Golgi apparatus and chloroplasts 43. The cell membrane contains channels and pumps that help move materials from one side to the other. What are these channels and pumps made of? A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. bilipids D. proteins 44. Diffusion occurs because A. molecules are attracted to one another. B. molecules constantly move and collide with each other. C. cellular energy forces molecules to collide with each other. D. cellular energy pumps molecules across the cell membrane. 45. An animal cell that is surrounded by fresh water will burst because the osmotic pressure causes A. water to move into the cell. B. water to move out of the cell. C. solutes to move into the cell. D. solutes to move out of the cell. Figure 7–5 46. Which means of particle transport is shown in Figure 7–5 above? A. endocytosis B. exocytosis C. facilitated diffusion D. protein pump 47. Which term describes the relatively constant internal physical conditions of an organism? A. cell specialization B. homeostasis C. organ system D. unicellularity 48. The cells of unicellular organisms are A. specialized to perform different tasks. B. larger than those of multicellular organisms. C. able to carry out all of the functions necessary for life. D. unable to respond to changes in their environment. 49. Which of the following is NOT a stage of cellular respiration? A. fermentation B. electron transport C. glycolysis D. Krebs cycle 50. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration? A. glycolysis fermentation -->Krebs cycle B. Krebs cycleelectron transportglycolysis C. glycolysis Krebs cycleelectron transport D. Krebs cycle glycolysis electron transport

51. What is the correct equation for cellular respiration? A. 6O2 + C6H12O6 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

52. Which process does NOT release energy from glucose? B. photosynthesis

53. Unlike photosynthesis, cellular respiration occurs in D. all eukaryotic cells.

54. Which of these processes takes place in the cytoplasm of a cell? A. glycolysis

55. Glycolysis provides a cell with a net gain of A. 2 ATP molecules. .

56. The starting molecule for glycolysis is. D. glucose.

57. Which of the following is NOT a product of glycolysis? D. glucose

58. Which of the following is an electron carrier that plays a role in cellular respiration? C. NADP+

59. The starting molecule for the Krebs cycle is C. pyruvic acid. .

60. The Krebs cycle produces C. carbon dioxide. . 61. In the presence of oxygen, glycolysis is followed by D. the Krebs cycle.

62. What process do the arrows for oxygen going in and water coming out represent in the Figure 9–2 diagram of the mitochondria? A. electron transport B. fermentation C. glycolysis D. the Krebs cycle 63. In eukaryotes, electron transport occurs in the A. inner mitochondrial membrane. B. nucleus. C. cell membrane. D. cytoplasm. 64. Which of the following pass high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain? A. NADH and FADH2 B. ATP and ADP C. citric acid D. acetyl–CoA 65. High-energy electrons that move down the electron transport chain ultimately provide the energy needed to A. transport water molecules across the membrane. B. convert ADP molecules into ATP molecules. C. convert carbon dioxide into water molecules. D. break down glucose into pyruvic acid molecules. 66. Cellular respiration uses 1 molecule of glucose to produce approximately A. 2 ATP molecules. B. 4 ATP molecules. C. 32 ATP molecules. D. 36 ATP molecules. 67. The air bubbles and spongy texture of bread are due to which process? A. lactic acid fermentation B. glycolysis C. alcoholic fermentation D. the Krebs cycle 68. During fermentation, A. NAD+ is regenerated, allowing glycolysis to continue. B. glucose is split into 3 pyruvic acid molecules. C. oxygen is required. D. carbon dioxide is produced. 69. The conversion of pyruvic acid into lactic acid requires A. alcohol. B. oxygen. C. ATP. D. NADH. 70. Breathing heavily after running a race is your body’s way of A. making more citric acid. B. repaying an oxygen debt. C. restarting glycolysis. D. stopping the electron transport chain. 71. Which bacteria killed the mice in Griffin’s transformation experiment? A. live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed, harmful bacteria B. live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed, harmless bacteria C. live harmful bacteria and heat-killed, harmless bacteria D. live harmless bacteria, and live, harmful bacteria 72. What did Avery conclude caused transformation? A. DNA was the transforming factor. B. A protein was the transforming factor. C. A carbohydrate was the transforming factor. D. A lipid was the transforming factor. 73. What would have happened if Avery had added an enzyme that digested all the nucleic acids to the mixture of heat-killed bacteria, added the mixture to harmless bacteria, and injected the mixture into mice? A. The harmless bacteria would have been transformed, and the mice would have died. B. The harmless bacteria would not have been transformed, and the mice would have lived. C. The harmless bacteria would not have been transformed, and the mice would have died. D. The harmless bacteria would have been transformed, and the mice would have lived. 74. What property of DNA does bacterial transformation illustrate? A. Bacterial DNA cannot move into other bacteria and function. B. Bacterial DNA can move into another bacteria and function. C. Bacterial DNA uses four nucleotides bases that work in pairs. D. Bacterial DNA is found in a circular chromosome. 75. Why did Hershey and Chase label the viral DNA with radioactive phosphorous and not radioactive sulfur? A. DNA contains phosphorus and no sulfur. B. Proteins contain phosphorus and no sulfur. C. DNA contains sulfur and little phosphorous. D. Proteins acids contain sulfur and little phosphorous. 76. What happens when a piece of DNA is missing? A. Genetic information is stored. B. Genetic information is copied. C. Genetic information is lost. D. Genetic information is transmitted. 77. In which cells is the accurate transmission of information most important? A. nerve cells B. skin cells C. sex cells D. bone cells 78. Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA? A. adenine + phosphate group + thymine B. cytosine + phosphate group + guanine C. deoxyribose + phosphate group + polymerase D. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine 79. The table in Figure 12–3 shows the results of measuring the percentages of the four bases in the DNA of several different organisms. Some of the values are missing from the table. Based on Chargaff’s rule, the percentages of guanine bases in chicken DNA should be around A. 28.8% B. 19.9% C. 21.5% D. 13.4% 80. Based on Chargaff’s rule, the percentage of cytosine in the DNA of the bacterium, S. Lutea in Figure 12–3, should be around A. 26.6%. B. 73.2%. C. 36.6%. D. 29.4%. 81. Which two bases pair together in DNA? A. adenine and guanine B. guanine and thymine C. thymine and cytosine D. cytosine and guanine 82. Which scientist made x-ray diffraction photos of DNA? A. Franklin B. Chargaff C. Watson D. Avery Figure 12–4 83. The table in Figure 12–4 shows the percentages of bases in a DNA sample. How much Thymine should you expect to find in the sample? A. 22% B. 24% C. 28% D. 44% 84. Watson and Crick discovered the two strands in DNA A. run in perpendicular directions. B. run in the same direction. C. run in opposite directions. D. run in random directions. 85. DNA replication results in two DNA molecules, A. each with two new strands. B. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands. C. each with one new strand and one originalstrand. D. each with two original strands. 86. During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases A. TCGAAC. B. GATCCA. C. AGCTTG. D. GAUCCA. 87. After DNA replication in eukaryotes, the A. DNA molecules unwind. B. histones and DNA molecules separate. C. DNA polymerase makes copies of DNA strands. D. nucleosomes become more tightly packed. 88. Which would be greater in a eukaryote than in a prokaryote? A. The percentage of guanine nucleotides. B. The total number of base pairs in a chromosome. C. The number of replication forks on a strand of DNA. D. The total amount of DNA in a cell. 89. What binds to the prokaryotic chromosome to start DNA replication? A. replication forks B. regulatory proteins C. chromatids D. telomeres 90. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, how many copies of the chromosome are left after replication? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 91. RNA contains the sugar A. ribose. B. deoxyribose. C. glucose. D. lactose. 92. Unlike DNA, RNA contains A. adenine. B. uracil. C. phosphate groups. D. thymine. 93. Which of the following is true? A. RNA is usually single-stranded. B. DNA is usually single-stranded. C. DNA contains uracil. D. RNA contains thymine. 94. Which type of RNA brings the information in the genetic code from the nucleus to other parts of the cell? A. rRNA B. tRNA C. mRNA D. RNA polymerase 95. How many main types of RNA are there? A. 1 B. 3 C. hundreds D. thousands 96. Which of the following statements is true of eukaryotic DNA? A. A promoter is part of an intron. B. An intron is part of a promoter. C. Introns are sequences of DNA. D. Exons are edited out of pre-mRNA. 97. Which molecules are involved in protein synthesis? A. transfer RNA, introns, and mutagens B. messenger RNA, introns, and ribosomal RNA C. ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA, and mutagens D. messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA 98. What is produced during transcription? A. RNA molecules B. DNA molecules C. RNA polymerase D. proteins 99. During eukaryotic transcription, an RNA molecule is formed that is A. complementary to both strands of DNA. B. identical to an entire single strand of DNA. C. double-stranded and inside the nucleus. D. complementary to part of one strand of DNA . 100. How many nucleotides are needed to specify three amino acids? A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12 101. There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. Which of the following is true? A. Several different codons can specify the same amino acid. B. Each codon specifies a different amino acid. C. Some amino acids have no link to a codon. D. Each amino acid is specified by only one codon. Figure 13–3 102. In Figure 13–3, which amino acid is specified by the mRNA code CCC? A. Gly B. Lys C. Ala D. Pro 103. According to Figure 13–3, which code specifies the same amino acid as UAU? A. UAC B. UAA C. UGC D. UGU 104. A promoter is a A. binding site for DNA polymerase. B. binding site for RNA polymerase. C. start signal for replication. D. stop signal for transcription. 105. What happens during translation? A. Messenger RNA is made from a DNA code. B. The cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins. C. Transfer RNA is made from a messenger RNA code. D. Copies of DNA molecules are made. 106. During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the A. codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the rRNA. B. anticodon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA. C. anticodon on the rRNA and the codon on the mRNA. D. codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA. 107. A protein is being assembled when A. DNA is being translated. B. RNA is being transcribed. C. RNA is being translated. D. DNA is being transcribed. 108. What is an exception to the central dogma of molecular biology? A. Viruses sometimes transfer information from RNA to DNA. B. Viruses sometimes transfer information from DNA to RNA. C. Viruses sometimes transfer information from proteins to DNA. D. Viruses can translate without RNA. 109. In eukaryotes A. Transcription takes place in the cytoplasm, and translation takes place in the nucleus. B. Transcription takes place in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm. C. Transcription and translation both take place in the nucleus. D. Transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm. 110. Which of the following is a chromosomalmutation? A. inversion B. insertion C. point mutation D. substitution 111. Which of the following is the name of a type of chromosomal mutation AND a type of gene mutation? A. substitution B. insertion C. deletion D. inversion 112. When a chromosome undergoes a deletionmutation, information is A. repeated. B. lost. C. reversed. D. transferred. 113. Most mutations A. have no effect on an organism. B. are fatal to an organism. C. are helpful to an organism. D. are harmful to an organism. 114. Which of the following statements is true about gene regulation in prokaryotes? A. Promoters determine whether a gene is expressed. B. Expressed genes make more DNA. C. DNA-binding proteins determine whether a gene is expressed. D. RNA polymerase regulates gene expression. 115. In E. coli, the lac operon controls the A. breakdown of lactose. B. production of lactose. C. breakdown of glucose. D. production of glucose. 116. Which is involved with the regulation of eukaryotic genes? A. operon B. DNA polymerase C. TATA box D. operator 117. Which of the following is part of only prokaryotic genes? A. operon B. TATA box C. promoter sequences D. enhancer sequences 118. Gene regulation in eukaryotes A. usually involves operons. B. is simpler than in prokaryotes. C. allows for cell specialization. D. includes the action of an operator region. 119. What regulates the expression of most eukaryotic genes? A. miRNA B. transcription factors C. dicer enzymes D. silencing complexes 120. If a pea plant’s alleles for height are tt, what is true of its parents? A. Both parents were tall. B. Both parents were short. C. Both parents contributed a recessive allele. D. Both parents contributed a dominant allele. 121. A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (Tt). If the tall F1 pea plants are allowed toself-pollinate, A. the offspring will be of medium height. B. all of the offspring will be tall. C. all of the offspring will be short. D. the offspring can be tall or short. 122. The principles of probability can be used to A. predict the traits of the offspring of genetic crosses. B. determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses. C. determine which species should be used in genetic crosses. D. decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses. 123. A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F1 plant will be tall is A. 25%. B. 50%. C. 75%. D. 100%. 124. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be A. hybrid. B. homozygous. C. heterozygous. D. dominant. 125. What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each other’s inheritance? A. principle of dominance B. principle of independent assortment C. principle of probabilities D. principle of segregation Figure 11–2 126. The Punnett square in Figure 11–2 shows that the gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color A. assort independently. B. are linked. C. have the same alleles. D. are always homozygous. 127. How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose genotype was RrYY? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 Figure 11–3 128. Use Figure 11–3 to answer the following question. If a pea plant that is heterozygous for round, yellow peas (RrYy) is crossed with a pea plant that is homozygous for round peas but heterozygous for yellow peas (RRYy), how many different phenotypes are their offspring expected to show? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 129. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a white chicken (WW) produces all speckled offspring (BBWW). This type of inheritance is known as A. incomplete dominance. B. polygenic inheritance. C. codominance. D. multiple alleles. 130. Variation in human skin color is an example of A. incomplete dominance. B. codominance. C. polygenic traits. D. multiple alleles. 131. The arctic fox is blue-gray in the summer and white in the winter. What most likely influence(s) this change? A. genes and the environment B. dominant alleles C. the environment alone D. codominant alleles 132. If an organism’s diploid number is 12, its haploid number is A. 12. B. 6. C. 24. D. 3. 133. Gametes have A. homologous chromosomes. B. twice the number of chromosomes found in body cells. C. two sets of chromosomes. D. one allele for each gene. 134. Gametes are produced by the process of A. mitosis. B. meiosis. C. crossing-over. D. replication. 135. What is shown in Figure 11–4? A. independent assortment B. anaphase I of meiosis C. crossing-over D. replication 136. What reduces the number of chromosomes during meiosis? A. Crossing-over occurs. B. Metaphase occurs. C. Replication occurs twice. D. Replication does not occur. 137. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of A. diploid cells. B. haploid cells. C. 2N daughter cells. D. body cells. 138. What is formed at the end of meiosis? A. two genetically identical cells B. four genetically different cells C. four genetically identical cells D. two genetically different cells 139. At the end of meiosis, there are A. two haploid daughter cells. B. four haploid daughter cells. C. two diploid daughter cells. D. four diploid daughter cells. 140. Which of the following assort independently? A. chromosomes B. linked genes C. multiple alleles D. codominant alleles 141. Linked genes A. are never separated. B. assort independently. C. are on the same chromosome. D. are always recessive. 142. Gene maps are based on A. the frequencies of crossing-over. B. independent assortment. C. genetic diversity. D. the number of genes in a cell. 143. If two genes are on the same chromosome and rarely assort independently, A. crossing-over never occurs between the genes. B. crossing-over always occurs between the genes. C. the genes are probably located far apart from each other. D. the genes are probably located close to each other. 144. The farther apart two genes are located on a chromosome, the A. less likely they are to be inherited together. B. more likely they are to be linked. C. less likely they are to assort independently. D. less likely they are to be separated by crossing over. 145. As a cell becomes larger, its A. volume increases faster than its surface area. B. surface area increases faster than its volume. C. volume increases, but its surface area stays the same. D. surface area stays the same, but its volume increases. 146. The rate at which wastes are produced by a cell partially depends on the cell’s A. ratio of surface area to volume. B. type of membrane. C. volume. D. surface area. 147. Compared to small cells, large cells have more trouble A. dividing. B. producing daughter cells. C. storing needed materials and waste products. D. moving needed materials in and waste products out. 148. The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells is called A. cell division. B. metaphase. C. interphase. D. mitosis. 149. An advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that sexual reproduction A. takes less time B. requires more time C. provides genetic diversity D. produces identical offspring 150. Which of the following lists structures from smallest to largest? A. chromosome, supercoil, coil, nucleosome, double helix B. chromosome, coil, double helix, nucleosome, supercoil C. double helix, nucleosome, coil, supercoil, chromosome D. nucleosome, coil, double helix, chromosome, supercoil 151. When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible? A. only during interphase B. only when they are being replicated C. only during cell division D. only during the G1 phase 152. Which pair includes a phase of the cell cycle and a cellular process that occurs during that phase? A. G1 phase, DNA replication B. G2 phase, preparation for mitosis C. S phase, cell division D. M phase, cell growth 153. When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated? A. G1 phase B. G2 phase C. S phase D. M phase Figure 10–5 154. During which phase(s) of mitosis are structures like the one shown in Figure 10–5 visible? A. anaphase only B. prophase, metaphase, and anaphase C. metaphase only D. anaphase and interphase 155. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell? A. prophase B. telophase C. metaphase D. anaphase 156. During normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell that has four chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each containing A. two chromosomes. B. four chromosomes. C. eight chromosomes. D. sixteen chromosomes. 157. Which of the following explains why normal cells grown in a petri dish tend to stop growing once they have covered the bottom of the dish? A. The cells lack cyclin. B. The petri dish inhibits cell growth. C. Contact with other cells stops cell growth. D. Most cells grown in petri dishes have a defective p53.

158. Why are stem cells important? A. They have specialized DNA. B. They are incapable of becoming cancer cells. C. They have the potential to undergo cell division. D. They have the potential to develop into other cell types.

159. Human females produce egg cells that have A. **one X chromosome.** B. two X chromosomes. C. one X or one Y chromosome. D. one X and one Y chromosome. 160. What percentage of human sperm cells carry an X chromosome? A. 0% B. 25% D. 100% 161. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype? A. 2 B. 23 C. 44 162. Sex-linked genes are located on A. the autosomal chromosomes. B. **the X chromosome only.** C. the Y chromosome only. D. both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.
 * C. 50%**
 * D. 46**

163. Which of the following pairs of genotypes result in the same phenotype? A. IAIA and IAIB B. IBIB and IBi C. IBIB and IAIB D. IBi and ii

Figure 14–3 164. The allele for the trait in the pedigree in Figure 14–3 is dominant. What is the probability of the couple labeled 2 of having a child with the trait? A. 25% C. 75% D. 100%
 * B. 50%**

Figure 14–5 165. The trait in pedigree in Figure 14–5 has two alleles: P (dominant) and p (recessive). The black symbols show the dominant phenotype, and the white symbols show the recessive phenotype. What is the genotype of individual number 1? A. PP C. P D. p 166. How many generations are shown in the pedigree in Figure 14–5? A. 2 C. 6 D. 8 167. People who are heterozygous for sickle cell disease are generally healthy because they A. are resistant to many different diseases. B. have some normal hemoglobin in their red blood cells. C. are not affected by the gene until they are elderly. D. produce more hemoglobin than they need . 168. Because the X chromosome contains genes that are vital for normal development, no baby has been born A. with one X chromosome. B. with three X chromosomes. D. with four X chromosomes. 169. Which of the following can be used to cut DNA so it can be studied? A. restriction enzymes B. gel electrophoresis C. karyotypes D. haplotypes 170. Which piece of DNA would move fastest in gel electrophoresis? A segment that is B. 1,000 base pairs long. C. 5,000 base pairs long. D. 100,000 base pairs long.
 * B. Pp**
 * B. 4**
 * C. without an X chromosome.**
 * A. 100 base pairs long**.

171. What is the role of restriction enzymes in studying the human genome? A. copying pieces of DNA B. labeling different nucleotides with different colors of dyes C. separating different pieces of DNA based on their size D. cutting large DNA molecules into smaller pieces

Figure 14–8 172. Which enzyme(s) in Figure 14–8 would be best for cutting DNA to make fragments with sticky ends? A. EcoRI and HaeIII B. HaeIII and BamI C. HaeIII alone D. EcoRI and BamI

173. The Human Genome Project is an attempt to A. sequence every person’s DNA. C. cure infectious human diseases. D. identify all restriction enzymes.
 * B. sequence the DNA of every human gene**.

174. Suppose a bacterial culture was transformed with recombinant plasmids containing a gene for resistance to penicillin. The bacterial culture was then treated with penicillin. Which of the following statements will happen to the transformed bacteria? A. They will die. B. They will live. C. They will under go PCR. D. They will become polyploidy . 175. During transformation, A. a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote. B. a cell takes in DNA from outside the cell. C. foreign DNA is inserted into a plasmid. D. the chromosome of a bacterium is mutated.

176. Which protein creates DNA fragments with sticky ends? A. DNA polymerase C. restriction enzyme D. lysozyme 177. A gene that makes it possible to distinguish bacteria that have been transformed by a plasmid from those that have not is called A. a resistance gene. B. an antibiotic. D. a clone. 178. Which of the following joins two pieces of DNA together? A. restriction enzyme C. plasmid D. genetic marker 179. The process of making changes in the DNA code of a living organism is called A. selective breeding. C. inbreeding. D. hybridization. 180. A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is known as A. a mutant. B. a hybrid. C. a polyploid. 181. If a restriction enzyme leaves a sticky end with the sequence TTAA, what will the sequence of the complementary sticky end be? A. CAAT B. GTTA C. AATT D. TAAC 182. Why are plasmids so widely used in recombinant DNA studies? A. because it is difficult to insert new genes into them B. because they can be used to transform bacteria D. because they cannot be cut with restriction enzymes 183. Why is inserting plasmids in yeast more complex than inserting them into bacteria? A. Yeasts are prokaryotes. C. Yeasts are hybrids. D. Yeasts are inbred. 184. To produce transgenic bacteria that make insulin, which of the steps listed below would a scientist do FIRST? A. Insert the human insulin gene into a plasmid. B. Extract the insulin from the bacterial culture. C. Cut out the insulin gene from human DNA. D. Transform bacteria with the recombinant plasmid. 185. What process can prospective parents use to determine if they are carrying recessive alleles for disease? A. DNA fingerprinting B. gene therapy D. Agrobacterium transformation.
 * B. DNA ligase**
 * C. a genetic marker**.
 * B. DNA ligase**
 * B. genetic engineering.**
 * D. recombinant DNA.**
 * C. because they naturally contain much foreign DNA**
 * B. Yeasts are eukaryotes.**
 * C. genetic testing**